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Osteosarcoma Synonyms, Key Words, and Related Terms: osteosarcoma, osteogenic sarcoma, osteoblastic osteosarcoma, chondroblastic osteosarcoma, fibroblastic osteosarcoma, telangiectatic osteosarcoma, multifocal osteosarcoma, parosteal osteosarcoma, periosteal osteosarcoma, bone cancer, bone tumor, fibrosarcoma, chondrosarcoma |
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Author Information | Introduction | Clinical | Differentials | Workup | Treatment | Medication | Follow-up | Miscellaneous | Test Questions | Pictures | Bibliography
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| AUTHOR INFORMATION | Section 1 of 12 |
Authored by Timothy P Cripe, MD, PhD, Associate Professor of Pediatric Hematology/Oncology, University of Cincinnati; Director, Translational Research Trials Office, Department of Pediatrics, Cincinnati Children's Hospital Medical Center
Timothy P Cripe, MD, PhD, is a member of the following medical societies: American Association for the Advancement of Science, American Society of Hematology, and American Society of Pediatric Hematology/Oncology
Edited by Samuel Gross, MD, Professor Emeritus, Department of Pediatrics, University of Florida, Clinical Professor, Department of Pediatrics, UNC, Adjunct Professor, Department of Pediatrics, Duke University; Mary L Windle, PharmD, Adjunct Assistant Professor, University of Nebraska Medical Center College of Pharmacy, Pharmacy Editor, eMedicine.com, Inc; Steven K Bergstrom, MD, Assistant to the Chairman, Department of Pediatrics, Division of Hematology-Oncology, Kaiser Permanente Medical Center of Oakland, CA; Helen SL Chan, MBBS, FRCP(C), FAAP, Senior Scientist, Research Institute; Professor, Division of Hematology/Oncology, Department of Pediatrics, The Hospital for Sick Children, University of Toronto, Canada; and Max J Coppes, MD, PhD, MBA, Executive Director, Center for Cancer and Blood Disorders, Children's National Medical Center
| Author's Email: | Timothy P Cripe, MD, PhD | |
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| Editor's Email: | Samuel Gross, MD |
eMedicine Journal, July 25 2006, VOLUME 7,
Number 7
| INTRODUCTION | Section 2 of 12 |
Background: Osteosarcoma is the third most common cancer in adolescence, occurring less frequently than only lymphomas and brain tumors. It is thought to arise from a primitive mesenchymal bone-forming cell and is characterized by production of osteoid. The mainstay of therapy is removal of the lesion. Limb-sparing procedures can often be used to preserve function. Chemotherapy is also required to treat micrometastatic disease, which is present but not detectable in most patients at diagnosis.
Pathophysiology: Osteosarcoma is a bone tumor that can occur in any bone. It most commonly occurs in the long bones of the extremities near metaphyseal growth plates. The most common sites are femur (42%, with 75% of tumors in the distal femur), tibia (19%, with 80% of tumors in the proximal tibia), and humerus (10%, with 90% of tumors in the proximal humerus). Other locations of note are the skull or jaw (8%) and pelvis (8%).
Any sarcoma that arises from bone is technically called an osteogenic sarcoma. Therefore, this term includes fibrosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, and osteosarcoma, all named for their morphologic characteristics. The focus of this article is osteosarcoma. A number of variants of osteosarcoma exist and include conventional types (ie, osteoblastic, chondroblastic, fibroblastic types) and telangiectatic, multifocal, parosteal, and periosteal types.
Frequency:
Mortality/Morbidity: The overall 5-year survival rate for patients whose condition was diagnosed between 1974 and 1994 was 63% (59% for male patients, 70% for female patients).
Race: The incidence is slightly higher in African Americans than in Caucasians (data from the National Cancer Institute [NCI] Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results [SEER] Study Pediatric Monograph, 1975-1995).
Sex: The incidence is slightly higher in male individuals than in female individuals.
Age: Osteosarcoma is rare in children younger than 5 years, in whom the annual incidence is approximately 0.5 case per million population. The incidence increases steadily with age; a relatively dramatic increase in adolescence corresponds with the growth spurt.
| CLINICAL | Section 3 of 12 |
History: Symptoms may be present for weeks, months, or occasionally longer before osteosarcoma is diagnosed. The most common presenting symptom of osteosarcoma is pain, particularly with activity. Patients may complain of a sprain, arthritis, or so-called growing pains. The patient often has a history of trauma, though pathologic fractures are not particularly common. The exception is the telangiectatic type of osteosarcoma, which is commonly associated with pathologic fractures. If pain affects a lower extremity, it may result in a limp.
The patient may have a history of swelling, depending on the size of the lesion and its location. Systemic symptoms, such as fever and night sweats, are rare. Tumoral spread to the lungs only rarely results in respiratory symptoms, and such symptoms usually indicate extensive lung involvement. Metastases to other sites are extremely rare; therefore, other symptoms are unusual. Only 15-20% of patients present with metastases, which primarily affect the lungs, but they can also affect other bones. Manifestations at several bone sites at diagnosis may indicate multifocal sclerosing osteosarcoma.
Osteosarcoma most commonly involves the distal femur and proximal tibia, followed by the proximal humerus and mid and proximal femur. As many as 20% of patients present with tumors of the flat bones of the body including the skull and pelvis. Tumors of the jaw are relatively uncommon.
Physical: Physical findings are usually limited to those of the primary tumor site.
Causes: The exact cause of osteosarcoma is unknown. However, a number of risk factors are known.
| DIFFERENTIALS | Section 4 of 12 |
Ewing Sarcoma and Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumors
Histiocytosis
Nonrhabdomyosarcoma Soft Tissue Sarcomas
Osteomyelitis
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Other Problems to be Considered:
Stress fracture
Hematoma
Chondroblastoma
Chondromyxoid fibroma
Osteochondroma
Osteoblastoma
Bone cysts
Giant cell tumor
Fibrosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
| WORKUP | Section 5 of 12 |
Lab Studies:
Imaging Studies:
Other Tests:
Procedures:
In general, the characteristic feature of osteosarcoma is the presence of osteoid in the lesion, even at sites distant from bone (eg, the lung). Although osteoid is usually obvious, electron microscopy is occasionally required to visualize its formation. Stromal cells may be spindle shaped and atypical with irregularly shaped nuclei.
A number of distinct histologic types of osteosarcoma are described. The conventional type is the most common in childhood and adolescence. This type has been subdivided on the basis of the predominant features of the cells (ie, osteoblastic, chondroblastic, fibroblastic types), though the subtypes are clinically indistinguishable. The telangiectatic type contains large, blood-filled spaces and is common in adolescence and early adulthood. The parosteal type is usually located in the bony cortex, it is easier to cure than the conventional type, and it can be seen in childhood or adulthood. The low-grade periosteal type, which also arises from the cortex but which usually encircles the bone, most often occurs in older patients who have a long history of symptoms, which reflects its indolent nature.
Staging: The purpose of staging tumors is to stratify risk groups. The conventional staging system used for other solid tumors is not appropriate for skeletal tumors because these tumors rarely involve lymph nodes or spread regionally. Rather, the staging system Enneking devised is based on grade, extramedullary spread, and metastases. These features are most important for nonmalignant skeletal tumors; most osteosarcomas are highly malignant. For osteosarcoma, the foremost initial question regarding staging is whether the tumor has metastasized.
Other features of the tumor, though technically not used in staging, may affect the prognosis. These include the LDH and alkaline phosphatase levels, the site of primary tumor (mostly related to ease of complete resection), the histologic response to chemotherapy, and the cause of disease. Patients with a good histologic response before surgery, the definition of which is still debated, appear to have an improved prognosis. Those with lesions arising from Paget disease have a particularly poor prognosis. Patients with isolated lesions of the jaw tend to do better and have a relatively low incidence of metastases.
Other features are being investigated for their prognostic significance. Examples include cellular expression of membrane-type matrix metalloproteinase type 1, Fas, CXCR4, Twist, microvessel density, and microarray signatures. Each of these features was prognostic in small series, but none have been tested prospectively, and testing for them has not yet become standard of care. The presence of metastases and a histologic response remain the most important predictors of outcome. Serum markers lose their significance when they are considered in multivariate analysis.
The osteosarcoma staging system can be summarized as follows:
| TREATMENT | Section 6 of 12 |
Medical Care: Before the use of chemotherapy which began in the 1970s, osteosarcoma was treated primarily with surgical resection, usually amputation. Despite such good local control of their disease, more than 80% of patients subsequently developed recurrent disease that typically manifests as pulmonary metastases. The high recurrence rate indicates that most patients have micrometastatic disease at diagnosis. Therefore, the use of adjuvant (postoperative) systemic chemotherapy is critical for the treatment of patients with osteosarcoma.
Neoadjuvant (preoperative) chemotherapy not only facilitates subsequent surgical removal by shrinking the tumor but also provides oncologists with an important risk parameter. Patients who have a good histopathologic response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy (>95% tumor cell kill or necrosis) have a prognosis better than those whose tumors do not respond favorably. Therefore, an assessment of neoadjuvant tumor cell kill has been incorporated into current chemotherapy trials to provide risk-adapted treatment regimens to determine if dose-intensification can improve the survival of patients with a poor initial histologic response.
Surgical Care: The orthopedic surgeon is of paramount importance in the care of patients with osteosarcoma. However, surgery should be conducted only in collaboration with a pediatric oncologist familiar with and knowledgeable about ongoing clinical trials to facilitate optimal care. Patients with suspected osteosarcoma are often referred to the orthopedic surgeon first for diagnosis.
In addition, because osteosarcomas are not particularly responsive to radiotherapy, surgery is the only option for definitive tumor removal (ie, local control). In addition, prosthesis or bone stabilization may be required after surgical resection. Therefore, close involvement of the orthopedic surgeon at diagnosis and during and after therapy is critical. Consultations: As is usual for any child with cancer, consultations with an oncologist and with any subspecialist related to the specific clinical circumstances are strongly recommended. Social service professions, psychologist, dentists, dietitians, and child-life specialists are usually involved with patients and their families throughout the course of their treatment. Diet: Patients receiving methotrexate should not be given folate supplementation or prophylaxis with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). Diet is not otherwise restricted. Activity: Restrictions on activity vary with the location of the tumor and on the type of surgical procedure required for treatment.
| MEDICATION | Section 7 of 12 |
The chemotherapeutic drugs most active in osteosarcoma are doxorubicin, cisplatin, and high-dose methotrexate (for which a low dose is ineffective). A number of pilot studies are currently being conducted to test the efficacy and safety of alkylator dose escalation, In addition, other therapies are being tested, such as the following:
As usual, physicians caring for patients with osteosarcoma should consult a pediatric oncologist affiliated with a center that participates in national or international trials to determine both the current standard treatment protocol and whether an appropriate investigational study is open for patient accrual.
Drug Category: Antineoplastic agents -- These agents disrupt DNA replication or cell division, thereby inhibiting tumor growth and promoting the death of tumor cells.
| Drug Name | Doxorubicin (Adriamycin, Rubex) -- Mechanisms of action include DNA intercalation, topoisomerase-mediated DNA strand breaks, and oxidative damage by means of free-radical production. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | Varies by protocol |
| Pediatric Dose | Varies by protocol; protocol CCG-7921 used 25 mg/m2/d continuous IV infusion over 72 h, not to exceed 450 mg/m2 |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity; severe heart failure, cardiomyopathy, impaired cardiac function; preexisting myelosuppression |
| Interactions | May decrease phenytoin and digoxin plasma levels; phenobarbital may decrease plasma levels; cyclosporine may induce coma or seizures; mercaptopurine increases toxicity; cyclophosphamide increases cardiac toxicity |
| Pregnancy | D - Unsafe in pregnancy |
| Precautions | Cardiotoxicity (may cause congestive heart failure when cumulative dose >450 mg/m2); other adverse effects include myelosuppression, nausea, diarrhea, alopecia, transient liver function abnormalities, hyperpigmentation of nail beds and dermal creases; tissue damage with extravasation |
| Drug Name | Cisplatin (Platinol, CDDP) -- Mechanism of action is platination of DNA, mechanism analogous to alkylation leading to interstrand and intrastrand DNA crosslinks and inhibition of DNA replication. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | Varies by protocol |
| Pediatric Dose | Varies by protocol; protocol CCG-7921 used 120 mg/m2 IV infused over 4 h on day 1 of each chemotherapy cycle |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity; renal impairment; hearing impairment; myelosuppression |
| Interactions | May potentiate ototoxicity of aminoglycosides; may increase nephrotoxicity of other drugs (eg, amphotericin B); loop diuretics increase risk of nephrotoxicity; increases toxicity of bleomycin |
| Pregnancy | D - Unsafe in pregnancy |
| Precautions | Administer adequate hydration before and 24 h after cisplatin dosing to reduce risk of nephrotoxicity; myelosuppression, ototoxicity, and nausea and vomiting may occur |
| Drug Name | Methotrexate (Folex PFS, high dose) -- Folate analog. Competitively inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, inhibiting DNA replication and RNA transcription; patients should receive adequate hydration and alkalinization to ensure effective drug clearance. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | Varies by protocol |
| Pediatric Dose | 12 g/m2 IV infused over 4 h; not to exceed 20 g/dose Protocol CCG-7921 administered high-dose methotrexate on days 21 and 28 of each chemotherapy cycle |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity; alcoholism; hepatic insufficiency; documented immunodeficiency syndromes; preexisting blood dyscrasias (eg, bone marrow hypoplasia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, significant anemia) |
| Interactions | Charcoal lowers levels; coadministration with etretinate may increase hepatotoxicity; folic acid or its derivatives contained in some vitamins may decrease response; coadministration with NSAIDs may be fatal; indomethacin and phenylbutazone can increase plasma levels; may decrease phenytoin serum levels; probenecid, salicylates, procarbazine, and sulfonamides may increase effects and toxicity; may increase plasma levels of thiopurines |
| Pregnancy | X - Contraindicated in pregnancy |
| Precautions | Caution in ascites or pleural effusions, which can result in third spacing and delay clearance; caution in renal dysfunction (creatinine clearance [CrCl] should be >60 mL/min/1.73 m2); caution in liver dysfunction; adverse effects include myelosuppression, mucositis, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, drowsiness, blurred vision, encephalopathy, paresis, seizures, transient liver function abnormalities, alopecia, rashes, photosensitivity, depigmentation or hyperpigmentation of skin, interstitial pneumonitis, osteoporosis, fever, infertility, menstrual dysfunction |
| Drug Name | Ifosfamide (Ifex) -- DNA alkylator, leading to interstrand and intrastrand DNA crosslinks, DNA-protein crosslinks, and inhibition of DNA synthesis. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | Varies by protocol |
| Pediatric Dose | Varies by protocol; 1.8 - 3.6 mg/m2/d IV for 5 d each cycle (ie, total cumulative dose of 9-18 mg/m2 per cycle) |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity, severely depressed bone marrow function |
| Interactions | Substrate of cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4; phenobarbital, phenytoin, chloral hydrate, and other drugs that induce with CYP activity, may increase ifosfamide clearance; coadministration with warfarin increases international normalized ratio (INR) |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Administer with mesna and extensive hydration to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis; causes myelosuppression, nausea, alopecia, and infertility |
| Drug Name | Ondansetron (Zofran) -- Selectively antagonizes serotonin 5-HT3 receptors. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | 0.15 mg/kg PO/IV q8h started 30 min before chemotherapy |
| Pediatric Dose | Administer as in adults |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity |
| Interactions | Although CYP inducers (barbiturates, rifampin, carbamazepine, and phenytoin) may change half-life and clearance, dosage adjustment not usually required |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Caution in liver toxicity and history of anaphylaxis (use premedication) |
| Drug Name | Dexamethasone (Decadron) -- Several glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid effects, including relief of emesis. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | 10 mg/m2 PO/IV/IM for 1 dose; followed by 5-10 mg/m2 PO/IV/IM q6h; not to exceed 20 mg/dose |
| Pediatric Dose | Administer as in adults |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity; active bacterial or fungal infection |
| Interactions | Effects decrease with coadministration of barbiturates, phenytoin and rifampin; dexamethasone decreases effect of salicylates and vaccines used for immunization |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Increases risk of several complications, including severe infections; monitor adrenal insufficiency when tapering; abrupt discontinuation of glucocorticoids may cause adrenal crisis; hyperglycemia, edema, osteonecrosis, myopathy, peptic ulcer disease, hypokalemia, osteoporosis, euphoria, psychosis, myasthenia gravis, growth suppression, and infections are possible complications of glucocorticoid use |
| Drug Name | Prochlorperazine (Compazine) -- Selectively antagonizes dopamine D2 receptors. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | 5-10 mg PO/IM tid/qid; not to exceed 40 mg/d 5-10 mg IV over 2 min; 25 mg PR bid |
| Pediatric Dose | 0.4 mg/kg/d PO/PR divided tid/qid; 0.1-0.15 mg/kg/dose IV/IM tid/qid |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity; bone marrow suppression; narrow-angle glaucoma; severe liver or cardiac disease |
| Interactions | Coadministration with other CNS depressants or anticonvulsants may cause additive effects; may cause hypotension with epinephrine |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Drug-induced Parkinson syndrome or pseudoparkinsonism frequent, particularly in pediatric patients; akathisia most common extrapyramidal reaction in elderly; lowers seizure threshold; caution with history of seizures |
| Drug Name | Filgrastim (Neupogen) -- Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) that activates and stimulates production, maturation, migration, and cytotoxicity of neutrophils. Shortens time to recovery of neutrophils after chemotherapy by stimulating bone marrow production of neutrophil precursors. Also stimulates granulocytic antibacterial functions. |
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| Adult Dose | 5 mcg/kg/d SC beginning >24 h after last dose of chemotherapy |
| Pediatric Dose | Administer as in adults; discontinue when absolute neutrophil count (ANC) rises above a predetermined level, usually 1000-10,000/mL; must be discontinued at least 24 h before start of further chemotherapy |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity, hypersensitivity to Escherichia coli–derived proteins |
| Interactions | Do not use 12-24 h before or 24 h after administering cytotoxic chemotherapy because increases sensitivity of rapidly dividing myeloid cells to cytotoxic chemotherapy |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Adverse effects include bone pain; osteoporosis; splenomegaly; exacerbation of preexisting skin disorders; hematuria or proteinuria; thrombocytopenia; elevated levels of uric acid, LDH, and alkaline phosphatase; fever; transient hypotension |
| Drug Name | Leucovorin (Wellcovorin) -- Also called citrovorum factor or folinic acid. Overrides folate antagonist (methotrexate) and protects against severe methotrexate-induced toxic effects. Discontinue when serum methotrexate level <10-7 mol/L. |
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| Adult Dose | 10 mg/m2 PO/IV q6h; may increase dose to 100 mg/m2 and give up to q3h Alternative: 1 g/d continuous IV infusion depending on serum methotrexate level |
| Pediatric Dose | Administer as in adults |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity; pernicious anemia |
| Interactions | Decreases effect of methotrexate, phenytoin, phenobarbital, and sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim combinations; increases toxicity of fluorouracil |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | May cause rash, pruritus, erythema |
| Drug Name | Dexrazoxane (Zinecard) -- Used preventatively as cardioprotectant to reduce incidence and severity of anthracycline cardiotoxicity; therefore, raises maximum tolerated dose. Exact mechanism unknown. Derivative of ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) and potent intracellular chelating agent. May interfere with iron-mediated free-radical generation that may be partly responsible for anthracycline-induced cardiomyopathy. Dose determined by the doxorubicin dose (ie, 10X doxorubicin dose). |
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| Adult Dose | Administer ratio of 10:1 (dexrazoxane to doxorubicin) IV within 30 min before doxorubicin; not to exceed 1250 mg/m2 |
| Pediatric Dose | Not established |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity; nonanthracycline chemotherapy regimens |
| Interactions | None reported |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Myelosuppression, alopecia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea |
| Drug Name | Mesna (Mesnex) -- Inactivates acrolein and prevents urothelial toxicity without affecting cytostatic activity. Used as prophylactic detoxifying agent to inhibit hemorrhagic cystitis caused by ifosfamide and cyclophosphamide. In kidney, mesna disulfide reduced to free mesna, which has thiol groups that react with acrolein, the ifosfamide or cyclophosphamide metabolite considered responsible for urotoxicity. |
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| Adult Dose | Dose depends on dose of ifosfamide or cyclophosphamide, typically 60-100% of antineoplastic agent used; may be administered as initial bolus then continuous IV infusion, or as intermittent IV infusions before and after chemotherapy regimen |
| Pediatric Dose | Administer as in adults |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity |
| Interactions | May increase warfarin effect, adjust dose according to target INR |
| Pregnancy | B - Usually safe but benefits must outweigh the risks. |
| Precautions | Monitor morning urine samples for hematuria before ifosfamide or cyclophosphamide dose; common adverse effects include hypotension, headache, GI toxicity, and limb pain |
| FOLLOW-UP | Section 8 of 12 |
Further Inpatient Care:
Further Outpatient Care:
In/Out Patient Meds:
Transfer:
Deterrence/Prevention:
Complications:
Prognosis:
Patient Education:
| MISCELLANEOUS | Section 9 of 12 |
Medical/Legal Pitfalls:
| TEST QUESTIONS | Section 10 of 12 |
CME Question 1: A 13-year-old male adolescent is injured while playing basketball and complains of thigh pain. Which finding on plain radiographs could represent an osteosarcoma?
A: Osteoblastic lesion in the diaphysis
B: Osteolytic lesion near the metaphysis with periosteal elevation
C: Mixed osteolytic-osteoblastic lesion in the diaphysis with a surrounding onion-skin pattern of new bone formation
D: A and B
E: A, B, and C
The correct answer is E: Osteosarcoma can have virtually any appearance on plain radiographs. The location and onion-skin pattern described in C is more suggestive of Ewing sarcoma than osteosarcoma, but biopsy is needed to prove the diagnosis.
CME Question 2: A 24-year-old woman was treated for a distal femoral osteosarcoma at the age 15 years with a limb-sparing procedure. Which tests is important to periodically perform as part of her follow-up care?
A: Hearing screen
B: Renal function tests
C: Thyroid function tests
D: Complete blood count
E: Pulmonary function tests
The correct answer is D: Patients treated with high-dose alkylating agents are at higher-than-usual risk of myelodysplasia and leukemia; therefore, their CBC should be monitored periodically. Although patients undergoing chemotherapy for osteosarcoma may have damage to their hearing and kidneys, this complication usually occurs during therapy and does not require routine follow-up after treatment. None of the chemotherapeutic drugs used for osteosarcoma is expected to affect lung or thyroid function. An echocardiogram is usually obtained because of the history of anthracycline (doxorubicin) exposure.
Pearl Question 1 (T/F): Osteosarcoma that manifests with a pathologic fracture is most likely a parosteal type.
The correct answer is False: Patients with telangiectatic osteosarcomas most commonly present with fractures.
Pearl Question 2 (T/F): Isolated osteosarcoma of the foot is best treated with amputation alone.
The correct answer is False: Chemotherapy must also be given to prevent the growth of micrometastases.
Pearl Question 3 (T/F): The most common site of osteosarcoma is the distal femur.
The correct answer is True: Almost 42% of osteosarcomas occur in the femur.
Pearl Question 4 (T/F): Multiple pulmonary metastases are treated best with chemotherapy and radiation therapy.
The correct answer is False: Surgical resection of pulmonary nodules is the only known way to cure such lesions.
| PICTURES | Section 11 of 12 |
| Caption: Picture 1. Lateral plain radiograph of the knee shows an osteosarcoma of the distal femur. The lesion is mainly posterior, with disruption and elevation of the periosteum (Codman triangle), and extends beyond the bone into the soft tissue. | |
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| Picture Type: X-RAY | |
| Caption: Picture 2. Anteroposterior plain radiograph of the same with distal femoral osteosarcoma as in Image 1. The osteolytic lesion is apparent on the right side of the image. | |
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| Picture Type: X-RAY | |
| Caption: Picture 3. MRI of the same distal femoral osteosarcoma as in Images 1-2; the uninvolved side is shown for comparison. | |
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| Picture Type: MRI | |
| Caption: Picture 4. Close-up MRI of the same distal femoral osteosarcoma as in Images 1-3. | |
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| Picture Type: MRI | |
| BIBLIOGRAPHY | Section 12 of 12 |
| NOTE: |
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| Medicine is a constantly changing science and not all therapies are clearly established. New research changes drug and treatment therapies daily. The authors, editors, and publisher of this journal have used their best efforts to provide information that is up-to-date and accurate and is generally accepted within medical standards at the time of publication. However, as medical science is constantly changing and human error is always possible, the authors, editors, and publisher or any other party involved with the publication of this article do not warrant the information in this article is accurate or complete, nor are they responsible for omissions or errors in the article or for the results of using this information. The reader should confirm the information in this article from other sources prior to use. In particular, all drug doses, indications, and contraindications should be confirmed in the package insert. FULL DISCLAIMER |
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Author Information | Introduction | Clinical | Differentials | Workup | Treatment | Medication | Follow-up | Miscellaneous | Test Questions | Pictures | Bibliography
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