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eMedicine Journal
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Emergency Medicine
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Cardiovascular
Atrial Flutter Synonyms, Key Words, and Related Terms: auricular flutter, atrial fibrillation, bradyarrhythmia, tachyarrhythmia, arrhythmia, heart disease, acute myocardial infarction, AMI, congestive heart disease, CHD, coronary artery disease, CAD, cardiovascular disease, heart attack, rhythm disturbance, palpitations, fatigue, poor exercise tolerance, dyspnea, angina, syncope, rhythm disturbance of the atria, congestive heart failure, CHF, peripheral embolization, left ventricle dysfunction, long-standing hypertension, valvular heart disease, rheumatic heart disease, left ventricular hypertrophy, diabetes, depressed left ventricular function, myotonic dystrophy, postoperative revascularization, digitalis toxicity, pulmonary embolism |
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Author Information | Introduction | Clinical | Differentials | Workup | Treatment | Medication | Follow-up | Miscellaneous | Test Questions | Pictures | Bibliography
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| AUTHOR INFORMATION | Section 1 of 12 |
Authored by Jeffrey Lazar, MD, MPH, Chief Resident, Section of Emergency Medicine, Yale New Haven Hospital
Coauthored by Alan D Clark, MD, Director, St Johns.com/Healthy People Magazine, Former Department Chairman, St. John's Emergency Trauma Center, St John's Regional Health Center, Springfield, Missouri; Vivek Parwani, MD, Assistant Professor, Section of Emergency Medicine, Department of Surgery, Yale University School of Medicine; Consulting Staff, Yale University Medical Center
Edited by Edward Bessman, MD, Chairman, Department of Emergency Medicine, John Hopkins Bayview Medical Center; Assistant Professor, Department of Emergency Medicine, Johns Hopkins University; Francisco Talavera, PharmD, PhD, Senior Pharmacy Editor, eMedicine; Gary Setnik, MD, Chair, Department of Emergency Medicine, Mount Auburn Hospital; Assistant Professor, Division of Emergency Medicine, Harvard Medical School; John Halamka, MD, Chief Information Officer, CareGroup Healthcare System, Assistant Professor of Medicine, Department of Emergency Medicine, Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center; Assistant Professor of Medicine, Harvard Medical School; and Jonathan Adler, MD, Attending Physician, Department of Emergency Medicine, Massachusetts General Hospital; Division of Emergency Medicine, Harvard Medical School
| Author's Email: | Jeffrey Lazar, MD, MPH | |
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| Editor's Email: | Edward Bessman, MD |
eMedicine Journal, October 11 2006, VOLUME 7,
Number 10
| INTRODUCTION | Section 2 of 12 |
Background: Atrial flutter is a relatively common atrial tachyarrhythmia. After atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter is the most significant of the atrial tachyarrhythmias.
Atrial flutter has traditionally been characterized as a macroreentrant arrhythmia with atrial rates between 240-400 beats per minute.
Atrial flutter is defined by the presence of stable, uniform atrial activation (flutter waves).
Atrial flutter, depending on the ventricular rate, can impede cardiac output and lead to atrial thrombus formation, with risk of systemic embolization.
Atrial flutter commonly includes some form of A-V block. Most commonly atrial depolarization is conducted at a 2:1 ratio, though it can also be conducted at a 4:1 ratio, and less commonly at a 3:1 or 5:1 ratio.
Pathophysiology: Multiple re-entrant or primarily generated (ectopic) atrial waveforms bombard the atrioventricular (AV) node.
The two forms of atrial flutter are known as type I and type II. Type I is the most common form.
Atrial flutter, type I, is also referred to as typical, common, or counter-clockwise isthmus-dependent atrial flutter and involves a re-entrant circuit that encircles the tricuspid annulus of the right atrium, with a depolarizing stimulus traveling up the atrial septum, experiencing epicardial break-through superiorly, and traveling back down the atrial free wall. (A clockwise variant of this circuit also exists.)
Type II atrial flutter, also known as atypical aflutter, is still poorly characterized, but may result from an intraatrial reentrant circuit operating at a faster rate.
Type I has traditionally been distinguished by a rate of 240-340 beats, and the ability to be entrained by atrial pacing. Type II has a rate greater than 340 beats.
Atrial flutter is associated in patients with heart failure, valvular disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hyperthyroidism, pericarditis, pulmonary embolism, and a history of open heart surgery.
Frequency:
Mortality/Morbidity: For the most part, morbidity and mortality are due to complications of rate (ie, syncope, congestive heart failure [CHF]). In patients who suffer from atrial flutter, the risk of embolic occurrences approaches that of atrial fibrillation.
Sex: Men are affected more often than women, with a 2:1 male-to-female ratio.
Age: The prevalence of atrial fibrillation increases with age and varies from 1 case out of 200 persons for people younger than 60 years, to almost 9 cases out of 100 persons for people over 80 years.
| CLINICAL | Section 3 of 12 |
History: Symptomatic atrial flutter is typically a manifestation of the rapid ventricular rate that decreases cardiac output.
Physical: Pertinent physical findings are limited to cardiovascular system. If embolization has occurred from intermittent AF, findings are related to brain and/or peripheral vascular involvement.
Causes:
| DIFFERENTIALS | Section 4 of 12 |
Other Problems to be Considered:
Narrow complex tachyarrhythmias
Wide complex tachyarrhythmias
| WORKUP | Section 5 of 12 |
Imaging Studies:
Other Tests:
Transthoracic echocardiogram has low sensitivity for intra-atrial thrombi, and is the preferred modality for testing atrial flutter.
| TREATMENT | Section 6 of 12 |
Prehospital Care: In general, avoiding class I and III agents (eg, procainamide) in the prehospital setting is safest because of possible induction of 1:1 conduction. Generally, the rate can be slowed safely with calcium channel blockers or beta-adrenergic blockers.
Emergency Department Care:
Consultations:
| MEDICATION | Section 7 of 12 |
If the patient is unstable (eg, hypotension, poor perfusion), synchronous direct-current (DC) cardioversion is commonly the initial treatment of choice. Cardioversion often requires low energies ( <50 J). If the electrical shock results in AF, a second shock at a higher energy level is used to restore normal sinus rhythm (NSR).
To slow the ventricular response, verapamil or diltiazem may be the appropriate initial treatment. Adenosine produces transient AV block and can be used to reveal flutter waves (see Image 1). These drugs generally do not convert atrial flutter to NSR.
If the flutter cannot be cardioverted, terminated by pacing, or slowed by the drugs mentioned above, digoxin can be administered alone or with either a calcium antagonist or beta-blocker. IV amiodarone has been shown to slow the ventricular rate and is considered as effective as digoxin.
Digoxin toxicity is very rarely a cause of flutter; however, ascertaining that flutter is not caused by digoxin toxicity is important. Another caveat is to beware of the vagolytic action of quinidine, procainamide, and disopyramide if used to slow the flutter rate. These drugs can effect AV conduction, resulting in a 1:1 ventricular response to the atrial flutter. Before administration of these drugs, be sure to slow the conduction rate with digoxin or calcium channel blockers.
Rate control is the goal of medication in atrial flutter or AF (see Atrial Fibrillation).
Beta-adrenergic blockers are especially effective in the presence of thyrotoxicosis and increased sympathetic tone.
Other antiarrhythmic drugs that can terminate atrial flutter/fibrillation include procainamide, disopyramide, propafenone, sotalol, flecainide, amiodarone, and ibutilide.
A newer agent is dofetilide, a recently approved class III antiarrhythmic. Another drug, azimilide, has been studied in the recent Azimilide Postinfarct Survival Evaluation (ALIVE) trial, a post-heart attack survival study. Additional data from ALIVE further support the ongoing development of azimilide as a treatment for supraventricular arrhythmias. Fewer patients in sinus rhythm at baseline developed atrial fibrillation/flutter during the trial on azimilide compared to placebo.
Another drug on the horizon is dronedarone, a deiodinated derivative of amiodarone that has no organ toxicity. Its use will extend to both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias. At present, dronedarone is an experimental agent that has multiple actions (all 4 Von Williams class effects). Unlike amiodarone, it does not have the iodine moiety. The lack of iodination may offer a better side-effect profile. Dronedarone has been shown to (1) have antiadrenergic effects, (2) prolong atrial and ventricular refractory periods, and (3) prolong atrioventricular node conduction as well as the paced QRS complex. In animal models, dronedarone has been shown to decrease ischemia-induced ventricular arrhythmias. The clinical effects of dronedarone are currently being examined in patients with atrial fibrillation and in patients with ICDs.
Antiarrhythmic drugs alone control atrial flutter in only 50-60% of patients. Since the early 1990s, radiofrequency catheter ablation has been used to interrupt the re-entrant circuit in the right atrium and prevent recurrences of atrial flutter. Radiofrequency ablation is immediately successful in more than 90% of cases and avoids the long-term toxicity observed with antiarrhythmic drugs.
When considering drug therapy for atrial flutter/fibrillation, remember the treatment caveat "electrical cardioversion is the preferred modality in the patient whose condition is unstable."
Drug Category: Calcium channel blockers -- Reduce the rate of AV nodal conduction and control ventricular response. Formulations administered IV are discussed only as they relate to the control of severe symptoms (eg, rapid ventricular rate in emergent situations).
| Drug Name | Diltiazem (Cardizem) -- DOC during depolarization. Inhibits calcium ion from entering slow channels or voltage-sensitive areas of vascular smooth muscle and myocardium. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | Initial dose: 0.25 mg/kg IV over 2 min as bolus; repeat at 0.35 mg/kg if inadequate rate reduction after 15 min Maintenance dose: 5-10 mg/h (up to 15 mg/h) IV can be infused for up to 24 h |
| Pediatric Dose | Not established |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity, severe CHF, sick sinus syndrome, second- or third-degree AV block, hypotension (<90 mm Hg systolic) |
| Interactions | May increase carbamazepine, digoxin, cyclosporine, and theophylline levels; when administered with amiodarone, may cause bradycardia and decrease in cardiac output; when given with beta-blockers, may increase cardiac depression; cimetidine may increase levels |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Caution in impaired renal or hepatic function; may increase LFT levels, and hepatic injury may occur |
| Drug Name | Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin, Verelan) -- Second DOC, can diminish PVCs associated with perfusion therapy and decrease risk of ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia. By interrupting re-entry at AV node, can restore NSR in patients with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias (PSVT). During depolarization, inhibits calcium ion from entering slow channels or voltage-sensitive areas of vascular smooth muscle and myocardium. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | 2.5-5 mg IV bolus initially reduces ventricular rate within 5 min; can be repeated to total of 15 mg IV, follow by maintenance infusion of 0.05-0.2 mg/min |
| Pediatric Dose | 0-1 years: 0.1-0.2 mg/kg IV bolus over at least 2 min under continuous ECG monitoring; usual single-dose range 0.75-2 mg 1-15 years: 0.1-0.3 mg/kg IV bolus over at least 2 min; usual single-dose range 2-5 mg; not to exceed 5 mg |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity, severe CHF, sick sinus syndrome, second- or third-degree AV block, hypotension (<90 mm Hg systolic) |
| Interactions | May increase carbamazepine, digoxin, cyclosporine, and theophylline levels; coadministration with amiodarone can cause bradycardia and decrease in cardiac output; when administered concurrently with beta-blockers, may increase cardiac depression; cimetidine may increase levels |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Hepatocellular injury may occur; transient elevations of transaminases with and without concomitant elevations in alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin have occurred (elevations have been transient and may disappear with continued verapamil treatment); monitor liver functions periodically |
| Drug Name | Metoprolol (Lopressor) -- Selective beta 1-adrenergic receptor blocker that decreases automaticity of contractions. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | 5-15 mg IV over 5-15 min in 5 mg increments |
| Pediatric Dose | Not established |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity, uncompensated CHF, bradycardia, asthma, cardiogenic shock, AV conduction abnormalities |
| Interactions | Aluminum salts, barbiturates, NSAIDs, penicillins, calcium salts, cholestyramine, and rifampin may decrease bioavailability and plasma levels, possibly decreasing pharmacologic effects; toxicity may increase with coadministration of sparfloxacin, phenothiazines, astemizole (recalled from US market), calcium channel blockers, quinidine, flecainide, and contraceptives; may increase toxicity of digoxin, flecainide, clonidine, epinephrine, nifedipine, prazosin, verapamil, and lidocaine |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Beta-adrenergic blockade may reduce signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia or hyperthyroidism; abrupt withdrawal may exacerbate symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including thyroid storm; monitor patient closely and withdraw drug slowly; during IV administration, carefully monitor blood pressure, heart rate, and ECG |
| Drug Name | Esmolol (Brevibloc) -- Ideal for use in patients at risk of complications from beta-blockade, especially patients with mild-moderate LV dysfunction or peripheral vascular disease. Has short half-life of 8 min; thus, easily titratable to desired effect and may be stopped quickly if necessary. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | Initial: 500 mcg/kg/min (0.5 mg/kg/min) IV infusion over 1 min, followed immediately by maintenance dose of 50 mcg/kg/min (0.05 mg/kg/min) IV over 4 min; if adequate therapeutic effect observed over 5 min of drug administration, maintain maintenance infusion dosage with periodic adjustments prn; if adequate therapeutic effect not observed, repeat same loading dosage over 1 min followed by an increased maintenance infusion rate of 100 mcg/kg/min (0.1 mg/kg/min) A quick calculation method is to take patient's body weight in kg, divide by 2 (eg, 70 kg/2 = 35 mg); this is loading dose over 1 min; multiply this dose by 0.1 (0.1 x 35 = 3.5 mg) to obtain mg/kg/min drip rate |
| Pediatric Dose | Not established |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity, uncompensated CHF, bradycardia, cardiogenic shock, AV conduction abnormalities |
| Interactions | Aluminum salts, barbiturates, NSAIDs, penicillins, calcium salts, cholestyramine, and rifampin may decrease bioavailability and plasma levels, possibly decreasing pharmacologic effect; cardiotoxicity may increase when administered concurrently with sparfloxacin, astemizole (recalled from US market), calcium channel blockers, quinidine, flecainide, or contraceptives; toxicity increases when administered concurrently with digoxin, flecainide, acetaminophen, clonidine, epinephrine, nifedipine, prazosin, haloperidol, phenothiazines, or catecholamine-depleting agents |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | May mask signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia or hyperthyroidism; symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including thyroid storm, may worsen when medication withdrawn abruptly; withdraw drug slowly and monitor patient closely |
| Drug Name | Procainamide (Pronestyl, Procanbid) -- Class IA antiarrhythmic used for PVCs. Increases refractory period of atria and ventricles. Myocardial excitability reduced by an increase in threshold for excitation and inhibition of ectopic pacemaker activity. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | 17 mg/kg IV at rate of 20-30 mg/min under continuous cardiac monitoring Stop infusion if QRS widening or hypotension occurs Control heart rate ( <100 bpm) with IV digoxin or calcium channel blockers first to avoid 1:1 AV conduction |
| Pediatric Dose | Not established |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity, complete heart block or second- or third-degree heart block if pacemaker not in place, torsade de pointes, systemic lupus erythematosus |
| Interactions | Can expect increased levels of procainamide metabolite NAPA in patients taking cimetidine, ranitidine, beta-blockers, amiodarone, trimethoprim, or quinidine; may increase effects of skeletal muscle relaxants, quinidine, lidocaine, and neuromuscular blockers; ofloxacin inhibits tubular secretion of procainamide and may increase bioavailability; when taken concurrently with sparfloxacin, may increase risk of cardiotoxicity |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Monitor for hypotension; plasma concentrations of procainamide and active metabolite, NAPA, may increase in renal failure; high or toxic concentrations may induce AV block or abnormal automaticity; caution in complete AV block, digitalis intoxication, organic heart disease, renal disease, or hepatic insufficiency |
| Drug Name | Quinidine (Cardioquin, Quinora) -- Prolongs effective refractory period and increases conduction time. Also has indirect anticholinergic effects, decreases vagal tone, and facilitates conduction in conversion of AF. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | 200 mg PO q2-3h for 5-8 doses with subsequent daily increases until sinus rhythm restored or side effects occur; not to exceed 3-4 g/d in any regimen Prior to administration, control ventricular rate and CHF (if present) with digoxin or calcium channel blockers |
| Pediatric Dose | 30 mg/kg/d PO in 5 divided doses |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity, complete AV block, intraventricular conduction defects, concurrent ritonavir or sparfloxacin |
| Interactions | Phenytoin, rifampin, and phenobarbital may decrease concentrations; toxicity increased when taken with ritonavir, sparfloxacin, beta-blockers, amiodarone, verapamil, cimetidine, alkalinizing agents, or nondepolarizing or depolarizing muscle relaxants; may enhance effect of anticoagulants |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Caution in G-6-PD deficiency and patients with a tendency to develop granulocytopenia; avoid use in myocardial depression, hepatic or renal insufficiency, and myasthenia gravis |
| Drug Name | Amiodarone (Cordarone) -- Prolongs action potential and refractory period in myocardium, inhibits adrenergic stimulation, and may inhibit AV conduction and sinus node performance. Blocks sodium channels with high affinity for inactive channels. Blocks potassium channels and weakly blocks calcium channels. In addition, noncompetitively blocks alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors. Prior to administration, control ventricular rate and CHF (if present) with digoxin or calcium channel blockers. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | 5 mg/kg IV over 30 min followed by 1200 mg/d |
| Pediatric Dose | 6.3 mg/kg (average loading dose) IV |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity, complete AV block, intraventricular conduction defects, concurrent ritonavir or sparfloxacin |
| Interactions | Increases blood levels and effects of theophylline, quinidine, procainamide, phenytoin, methotrexate, flecainide, digoxin, cyclosporine, beta-blockers, and anticoagulants; cardiotoxicity increased by ritonavir, sparfloxacin, and disopyramide; coadministration with calcium channel blockers may cause additive effect and decrease myocardial contractility further; cimetidine may increase levels |
| Pregnancy | D - Unsafe in pregnancy |
| Precautions | Adverse effects include pulmonary toxicity and fibrosis, which can be life threatening Caution in thyroid or liver disease |
| Drug Name | Dofetilide (Tikosyn) -- Prototype of "pure" class III agent. Blocks delayed rectifier current (IKr) and prolongs action potential duration; indeed, even at higher magnitudes, has no effect upon other depolarizing potassium currents (IKs and IKl). Terminates induced re-entrant tachyarrhythmias (atrial fibrillation/flutter and ventricular tachycardia) and prevents their re-induction. At clinically prescribed concentrations, has no effect on sodium channels, which are associated with class I effects. Furthermore, no effect noted on alpha- or beta-adrenergic receptors. Indicated for maintenance of NSR in patients with atrial fibrillation/atrial flutter lasting > 1 wk who have been converted to NSR. Also indicated for conversion of AF and atrial flutter to NSR. Has not been effective for patients with paroxysmal AF. Torsade de pointes is only arrhythmia showing dose-response relationship. Prevalence with supraventricular arrhythmia is 0.8%. Majority of torsade de pointes episodes occur within first 3 d of therapy. If patients do not convert to NSR within 24 h of initiation of therapy, electrical cardioversion should be considered. Has no effect on cardiac output, cardiac index, stroke volume index, or systemic vascular resistance. Does not affect blood pressure. Must be initiated with continuous ECG monitoring and monitoring continued for >12 h after conversion. Dose must be individualized according to CrCl and QTc (use QT interval if heart rate <60/min). No information on use of this drug for heart rates <50/min. Patients with AF should receive anticoagulant therapy according to established practice. Anticoagulation should be continued after cardioversion as per usual practice. |
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| Adult Dose | Step 1. Determine QTc using average of 5-10 beats; if QTc > 440 ms (500 ms in those with ventricular conduction abnormalities), dofetilide is contraindicated Step 2. Calculate CrCl prior to administration, using formulas: CrCl (male) = (140-age) X body weight (kg)/72 X serum creatinine (mg/dL) CrCl (female) = (140-age) X body weight (kg) X 0.85/72 X serum creatinine (mg/dL) Step 3. Determine starting dose as follows: CrCl >60 mL/min: 500 mcg PO bid CrCl 40-60 mL/min: 250 mcg PO bid CrCl 20-40 mL/min: 125 mcg PO bid CrCl <20 mL/min: Contraindicated Step 4. Administer dofetilide and begin continuous ECG monitoring Step 5. 2-3 h after administration of first dose, determine QTc; if QTc has increased by >15% compared to baseline or if QTc is >500 ms (550 ms in those with ventricular conduction abnormalities), adjust subsequent doses as follows: Starting dose 500 mcg bid: 250 mcg bid Starting dose 250 mcg bid: 125 mcg bid Starting dose 125 mcg bid: 125 mcg qd Step 6. Continuously monitor for minimum of 3 d or for a minimum of 12 h after conversion to NSR, whichever is greater |
| Pediatric Dose | <18 years: Not established |
| Contraindications | Congenital or acquired long QT syndromes; baseline QT interval or QTc >440 ms (500 ms in patients with ventricular conduction abnormalities); severe renal impairment (CrCl <20 mL/min); concomitant use of verapamil, cimetidine, trimethoprim, ketoconazole, or any drug that increases plasma levels of dofetilide, inhibits renal cation transport, or prolongs QT interval |
| Interactions | Drugs known to increase plasma levels of dofetilide include verapamil, cimetidine, trimethoprim, and ketoconazole; known inhibitors of renal cation transport include prochlorperazine and megestrol; drugs that prolong QT interval include, but are not limited to, phenothiazines, cisapride, bepridil, tricyclic antidepressants, and certain oral macrolide antibiotics Class I or class III antiarrhythmic agents should be held for at least 3 half-lives prior to dosing (terminal half-life is 10 h) Does not affect pharmacokinetics of digoxin, but concomitant use of these 2 drugs has been associated with higher incidence of torsade de pointes; warfarin pharmacodynamics not altered by this medication |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Use caution in renal impairment (CrCl guides dosing), hepatic impairment (dofetilide has not been studied in patients with severe hepatic impairment), or cardiac conduction problems (drug has no effect on AV node conduction in patients with first-degree heart block, but effects in second- and third-degree block not studied); has been used safely in conjunction with pacemakers |
| Drug Name | Ibutilide (Corvert) -- Newer class III antiarrhythmic agent that may work by increasing action potential duration and thereby changing atrial cycle length variability. Mean time to conversion is 30 min. Two thirds of patients who converted were in sinus rhythm at 24 h. Ventricular arrhythmias occurred in 9.6% of patients and mostly were PVCs. The incidence of torsades de pointes was <2%. |
|---|---|
| Adult Dose | <60 kg: 0.01 mg/kg IV over 10 min >60 kg: 1 mg IV over 10 min; a second infusion of equal strength can be given 10 min after first prn |
| Pediatric Dose | Not established |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity |
| Interactions | Ibutilide increases toxicity of quinidine and procainamide; concurrent administration of ibutilide with tricyclic antidepressants and phenothiazines may prolong Q-T interval (one report noted an 8.3% incidence of torsades de pointes); toxicity of digoxin increases when administered concurrently with ibutilide |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Caution in renal or hepatic impairment |
| Drug Name | Digitalis, Digoxin (Lanoxin) -- Has direct inotropic effects in addition to indirect effects on cardiovascular system. Effects on myocardium involve both direct action on cardiac muscle that increases myocardial systolic contractions and indirect actions that result in increased carotid sinus nerve activity and enhanced sympathetic withdrawal for any given increase in mean arterial pressure. |
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| Adult Dose | In previously undigitalized patients: 400-600 mcg (0.4-0.6 mg) IV initial single dose usually produces detectable effect in 5-30 min, which becomes maximal in 1-4 h |
| Pediatric Dose | <2 years: Not established 2-5 years: 25-35 mcg/kg IV 5-10 years: 15-20 mcg/kg IV >10 years: 8-12 mcg/kg IV |
| Contraindications | Documented hypersensitivity, beriberi heart disease, idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis, constrictive pericarditis, carotid sinus syndrome |
| Interactions | Medications that may increase levels include alprazolam, benzodiazepines, bepridil, captopril, cyclosporine, propafenone, propantheline, quinidine, diltiazem, aminoglycosides, oral amiodarone, anticholinergics, diphenoxylate, erythromycin, felodipine, flecainide, hydroxychloroquine, itraconazole, nifedipine, omeprazole, quinine, ibuprofen, indomethacin, esmolol, tetracycline, tolbutamide, and verapamil Medications that may decrease serum levels include aminoglutethimide, antihistamines, cholestyramine, neomycin, penicillamine, aminoglycosides, oral colestipol, hydantoins, hypoglycemic agents, antineoplastic treatment combinations (including carmustine, bleomycin, methotrexate, cytarabine, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, procarbazine), aluminum or magnesium antacids, rifampin, sucralfate, sulfasalazine, barbiturates, kaolin/pectin, and aminosalicylic acid |
| Pregnancy | C - Safety for use during pregnancy has not been established. |
| Precautions | Hypokalemia may reduce positive inotropic effect; IV calcium may produce arrhythmias in digitalized patients; hypercalcemia predisposes patient to digitalis toxicity, and hypocalcemia can make digoxin ineffective until serum calcium levels are normal; magnesium replacement therapy must be instituted in patients with hypomagnesemia to prevent digitalis toxicity; patients diagnosed with incomplete AV block may progress to complete block when treated with digoxin; exercise caution in hypothyroidism, hypoxia, and acute myocarditis |
| FOLLOW-UP | Section 8 of 12 |
Further Inpatient Care:
Advances in electrophysiologic mapping and catheter ablation techniques have improved the efficacy of this treatment modality to greater than 90%.
Transfer:
Complications:
Prognosis:
Patient Education:
| MISCELLANEOUS | Section 9 of 12 |
Medical/Legal Pitfalls:
| TEST QUESTIONS | Section 10 of 12 |
CME Question 1: Generally, atrial flutter is caused by which of the following?
A: Atrial waveform re-entrant pathway
B: Single atrial waveform ectopic focus
C: Slowing of atrial fibrillatory waves
D: Multifocal atrial waveform ectopic foci
E: None of the above
The correct answer is A: Because of an atrial waveform re-entrant pathway, 1:1 conduction rates are possible.
CME Question 2: What is the typical rate noted on an ECG of a patient with atrial flutter (ie, the ventricular response)?
A: 300 beats per minute
B: 200 beats per minute
C: 150 beats per minute
D: 100 beats per minute
E: 75 beats per minute
The correct answer is C: This reflects the general default 2:1 block in the AV node.
Pearl Question 1 (T/F): Type I atrial flutter exhibits a rate of 250-350 beats per minute, while type II atrial flutter exhibits rates of 350-450 beats per minute.
The correct answer is True: Atrial rate during typical (sometimes called type I) atrial flutter is usually 250-350 beats per minute, although class IA and IC antiarrhythmic drugs and amiodarone can reduce the rate to approximately 200 beats per minute. Rate in atypical (sometimes called type II) flutter is 350-450 beats per minute. Re-entry is responsible for most atrial flutters.
Pearl Question 2 (T/F): In the patient with atrial flutter whose condition is unstable (ie, hypotension and poor tissue perfusion), chemical conversion is the treatment of choice.
The correct answer is False: In patients with atrial flutter in unstable condition, electrical cardioversion is the preferred treatment.
Pearl Question 3 (T/F): Quinidine, procainamide, and disopyramide, because of their vagolytic action, slow AV conduction in rapid atrial dysrhythmias.
The correct answer is True: Quinidine, procainamide, and disopyramide have vagolytic action and slow the atrial flutter rate. These drugs can effect AV conduction, resulting in a 1:1 ventricular response to the atrial flutter. Before administration of these drugs, slow the conduction rate with digoxin or calcium channel blockers.
Pearl Question 4 (T/F): In atrial flutter, the atrial rate is about 300 beats per minute, and, in untreated patients, the ventricular rate is half the atrial rate.
The correct answer is True: The atrial rate in patients with atrial flutter is ordinarily about 300 beats per minute. In untreated patients, the ventricular rate is half the atrial rate (ie, 150 beats per minute). A significantly slower ventricular rate in the absence of drugs suggests abnormal AV conduction.
| PICTURES | Section 11 of 12 |
| Caption: Picture 1. Type I atrial flutter unmasked by adenosine (Adenocard). | |
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| Picture Type: Rhythm Strip | |
| BIBLIOGRAPHY | Section 12 of 12 |
| NOTE: |
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| Medicine is a constantly changing science and not all therapies are clearly established. New research changes drug and treatment therapies daily. The authors, editors, and publisher of this journal have used their best efforts to provide information that is up-to-date and accurate and is generally accepted within medical standards at the time of publication. However, as medical science is constantly changing and human error is always possible, the authors, editors, and publisher or any other party involved with the publication of this article do not warrant the information in this article is accurate or complete, nor are they responsible for omissions or errors in the article or for the results of using this information. The reader should confirm the information in this article from other sources prior to use. In particular, all drug doses, indications, and contraindications should be confirmed in the package insert. FULL DISCLAIMER |
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Author Information | Introduction | Clinical | Differentials | Workup | Treatment | Medication | Follow-up | Miscellaneous | Test Questions | Pictures | Bibliography
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